A woman whose husband became a sperm donor without her knowledge is seeking to change the law (reported in BioNews 671). Her claim is that a husband's sperm constitutes a 'marital asset', over which a wife should have some legally enforcable rights. Currently, there is no legal requirement for a spouse to consent to her partner's sperm donation. But perhaps there should be? After all, marriage is usually understood to entail a degree of shared decision-making. And since begetting children - with one's spouse - is traditionally a primary reason for tying the knot, can it really be compatible with marital mores for husbands to conceive children with other people?